1. Which of the following statements are true about social reform movement in Kerala ?
(i) It was initiated and led by the middle class under the influence of western ideas.
(ii) They had a critical attitude towards traditional institutions, beliefs and social relations.
(iii) They seldom criticised caste hierarchy.
A) Only (i) and (ii)
B) Only (i) and (iii)
C) Only (ii) and (iii)
D) All of the above (i, ii and iii)
Correct Answer: A
2. Who established Abhinava Bharata Yuvak Sangham ?
A) E.M.S. Namboothiripad
B) P. Krishnan Pillai
C) K. Damodaran d)
A. V. Kunjambu
Correct Answer: D
3. A list of political events occurred in the 1930s in Kerala wherein women largely participated is given below. Choose the correct match.
(i) Gandhiji's Constructive Programme – T.C. Kochukutty Amma
(ii) Girl Students Strike at Chalappuram Government School – Jayalakshmi
(iii) Temple Entry Programme – P. M. Kamalavathy
A) All of the above
B) Only (i) is correct
C) Only (i) and (iii) are correct
D) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
Correct Answer: A
4. Among the following statements which are true in relation to the event of the Partition of Bengal?
(i) lord Curzon issued the order of dividing the province of Bengal.
(ii) It was meant to stem the rising tide of nationalism.
(iii) Indian nationalists did not see the partition as an attempt to divide Indians on religious ground.
A) All are true
B) Only (i) and (ii) are true
C) Only (i) and (iii) are true
D) Only (ii) and (iii) are true
Correct Answer: B
5. Among the following statements which are true about the imposition of Emergency in 1975 ?
(i) It was imposed under Article 352 of the Constitution.
(ii) The proclamation of Emergency suspended the federal provisions of the
Constitution and Fundamental Rights and Civil liberties.
(iii) A series of decrees, laws and constitutional amendments reduced the power of judiciary to check the functioning of the executive.
A) Only (i) and (ii)
B) Only (i) and (iii)
C) Only (ii) and (iii)
D) All of the above (i, ii, iii)
Correct Answer: D
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6. Who instituted the land revenue system named Dahsala ?
A) Iltutmish
B) Sher Shah
C) Akbar
D) Aurangazeb
Correct Answer: C
7. Among the following combinations which one correctly represents the effects of World War I?
A) Collapse of Habsburg Empire, Russian Revolution, United Nations
B) Russian Revolution, United Nations, Revolt of Germany
C) Collapse of Habsburg Empire, Russian Revolution, League of Nations
D) Revolt of Germany, Collapse of Habsburg, United Nations
Correct Answer: C
8. Read the following statements and then choose the correct answer.
Statement 1 : French Revolution began as an assertion of National Sovereignty.
Statement 2 : The National Assembly in 1790 demanded that France could never make war except in self-defence.
A) Both are true
B) Only Statement 1 is true
C) Only Statement 2 is true
D) Both are false
Correct Answer: A
9. The idea of abandonment of parliamentary democracy in favour of a ‘dictatorship of the proletariat’ was associated with
A) American Revolution
B) French Revolution
C) Russian Revolution
D) None of the above
Correct Answer: C
10. The three pillars of Jawaharlal Nehru's development strategy in post-independent India were
A) Planning for rapid industrial and agricultural growth, a private sector to develop strategic industries, a mixed economy
B) Planning for rapid industrial and agricultural growth, a public sector to develop strategic industries, a mixed economy
C) Planning for rapid industrial and agricultural growth, a private sector to develop strategic industries, a capitalist economy
D) Planning for rapid industrial and agricultural growth, a private sector to develop strategic industries, a socialist economy.
Correct Answer: B
11. Which of the following statement is/are correct about relative humidity ?
(i) How much water vapor is in the atmosphere as a percentage of the maximum amount possible ?
(ii) low relative humidity indicates relatively dry atmospheric conditions, while high relative humidity indicates relatively humid atmospheric conditions.
(iii) The relative humidity is high, less water evaporates from the skin because the surrounding atmosphere is already relatively moist, leaving the skin surface hotter.
A) Only (i) and (ii)
B) Only (i) and (iii)
C) Only (ii) and (iii)
D) All the above (i, ii, iii)
Correct Answer: D
12. Which of the following are the tributaries of River Periyar ?
1) Mangalapuzha
2) Idamalayar
3) Gayathripuzha
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: A
13. Match the list – I with list – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below.
List – I List – II
(Divisions of Himalaya) (Rivers)
a) Punjab Himalaya 1) Sutlej to Kali
b) Kumaon Himalaya 2) Indus to Sutlej
c) Nepal Himalaya 3) Tista to Brahmaputhra
d) Assam Himalaya 4) Kali to Tista
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A) 4 2 1 3
B) 2 1 4 3
C) 2 4 3 1
D) 1 2 3 4
Correct Answer: B
14. What are the factors affect the strength and direction of wind?
1) Pressure gradients.
2) Coriolis effect.
3) Friction.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 2 and 3 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
15. Consider the following statements:
1) Intense seismic activity occurs along convergent lithospheric plate boundaries.
2) Convergent lithospheric plate boundaries, oceanic plates are undergoing subduction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
16. Which of the following objectives related to the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget management Act (FRBmA), 2003 are correct ?
(i) Fiscal deficit is to be reduced to 5% of GDP.
(ii) Complete elimination of revenue deficit.
(iii) Greater transparency in fiscal operations.
A) Only (i) and (ii)
B) Only (ii) and (iii)
C) Only (i) and (iii)
D) All of the above (i, ii and iii)
Correct Answer: B
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17. Calculate the NNP at factor cost from the following data: NNP at market price : Rs. 5,000 crores, Indirect taxes : Rs. 400 crores, Subsidies : Rs. 200 crores.
A) Rs. 5,600 crores
B) Rs. 5,200 crores
C) Rs. 4,800 crores
D) Rs. 4,400 crores
Correct Answer: C
18. The major instruments used by the Reserve Bank of India to control credit include
(i) Bank Rate.
(ii) Variable Reserve Requirements (CRR&SlR).
(iii) Open market Operations.
Which of the statements are correct ?
A) All are correct
B) Only (i) and (ii)
C) Only (ii) and (iii)
D) All are wrong
Correct Answer: A
19. Among the major objectives of some Five year Plans in India, which one is in a correct (ascending/chronological) order ?
(i) Inclusive growth
(ii) Rapid industrialization
(iii) Agricultural development
(iv) Poverty eradication
A) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
B) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
C) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
D) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
Correct Answer: B
20. Nobel Prize for Economics in 2020 was awarded to Paul R. milgrom and Robert B. Wilson for their contribution in
A) Improvements to auction theory and inventions of new auction formats
B) Behavioural economics
C) Integrating technological innovations into long run macroeconomic analysis
d) Experimental approach to alleviating global poverty
Correct Answer: A
21. Which is the portable document format version of the election photo identity card?
A) E-EPIC
B) E-EPId
C) e-EPIC
d) EEPIC
Correct Answer: C
22. The bank authorized to issue and encash Electoral Bonds in India
A) Reserve Bank of India
B) State Bank of India
C) Union Bank of India
D) All the above
Correct Answer: B
23. The idea of separation of powers implies
(i) That the same person should not form part of more than one organ of the government.
(ii) That one organ of the government should not control or interfere with the exercise of its function by another organ.
(iii) That one organ of the government should not exercise the functions of other.
A) (i) and (ii) only
B) (i) and (iii) only
C) (ii) and (iii) only
D) All the above
Correct Answer: D
24. ___________ of the Constitution indicate that the people of India are the source of authority behind the Constitution.
A) Article 1
B) The word Sovereign
C) The Preamble
D) Part III
Correct Answer: C
25. Which of the following is not a classical language in India?
A) Hindi
B) Odiya
C) Malayalam
D) Tamil
Correct Answer: A
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