Kerala PSC Assistant Professor in Obstetrics and Gynaecology previous question paper 2021
Question Paper Code: 7/2021/OL
Category Code: 010/2020
Exam: Assistant Professor in Obstetrics and Gynaecology
Date of Test 15-03-2021
Department Medical Education Services
PART 2
Questions (01 to 25) : Click here
Quesitons (25 to 50): Click here
Quesitons (25 to 50): Click here
Question76:-Using WHO classification for Semen Analysis interpretation, choose the FALSE statement is
A:-The normal lower limit for normal morphology is 4%
B:-The normal lower limit for sperm motility is 32%
C:-Viability should be at least 58%
D:-The normal lower limit for sperm concentration is 39 million/mL
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question77:-Contraindications to using Gonadotropins for ovulation induction in infertile women include all EXCEPT
A:-Uncontrolled thyroid and adrenal dysfunction
B:-Hypogonadotropichypogonadism due to space occupying lesions
C:-Sex hormone-dependent tumors of the reproductive tract and accecssory organs
D:-Kallmann syndrome
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question78:-All the following are methods to decrease OHSS EXCEPT
A:-HCG trigger
B:-GnRH antagonists
C:-Invitro oocyte maturation
D:-Cabergoline
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question79:-All statements about heterotopic pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-1 in 30000 in spontaneous conceptions, as high as 1% with IVF treatment
B:-Only 26% of heterotopic cases can be diagnosed with transvaginal US
C:-Most often diagnosed in the first 5 to 8 weeks of gestation
D:-After treatment of a heterotopic gestation, the overall delivery rate for the intrauterine pregnancy is only 10-20%
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question80:-All the following are independent prognostic variables in endometrial cancer EXCEPT
A:-Myometrial invasion
B:-Peritoneal cytology
C:-Tumor size
D:-Lymph node metastasis
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question81:-Find the INCORRECT statement regarding endometrial cancer.
A:-Inactivation of the PTEN tumor-suppressor gene is the most common genetic defect in type I cancers
B:-Type I cancers arise from its precursor Endometrial Intraepithelial Carcinoma (EIC)
C:-Type II cancers frequently demonstrate alterations in HER2/neu,p53,p16,E-cadherin and loss of LOH
D:-Type II endometrial cancer appears to be unrelated to high estrogen levels and often develops in non-obese women
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question82:-All are TRUE regarding Leiomyosarcoma EXCEPT
A:-This malignancy has no relationship with parity
B:-A history of prior pelvic radiation can be elicited in about 50% of women with uterine LMS
C:-Surgery is the mainstay of treatment for uterine LMS
D:-Retroperitoneal lymphatic spread is rare in women with early-stage disease and lymphadenectomy is not associated with a survival advantage
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question83:-All the following are TRUE about TTTS EXCEPT
A:-Although growth discordance or growth restriction may be found with TTTS, these per se are not considered diagnostic criteria
B:-TTTS is diagnosed in a monochorionicdiamnionic pregnancy when there is oligamnios SVP<2 cm in one sac and polyhydramnios SVP>8 in the other sac
C:-Sonography surveillance of pregnancies at risk for TTTS should begin at 16 weeks and continue every 2 weeks
D:-The discrepancies in amnionic fluid volumes of TTTS are also typically seen in Twin Anaemia Polycythemia Sequence (TAPS)
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question84:-Find the FALSE statement regarding 2018 FIGO staging of cancer cervix.
A:-Tumour of size ≥ 2 cm and < 4 cm confined to the cervix is stage IB2
B:-Imaging and pathology can be used, where available, to supplement clinical findings with respect to tumor size and extent, in all stages
C:-The involvement of lymph nodes are not part of staging
D:-The lateral extent of the lesion is no longer considered
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question85:-The boundaries of paravesical space include all EXCEPT
A:-The obliterated umbilical artery running along the bladder medially
B:-The obturator internus muscle along the pelvic sidewall laterally
C:-The uterosacral ligament posteriorly
D:-The pubic symphysis anteriorly
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question86:-All are TRUE regarding serous borderline ovarian tumours EXCEPT
A:-10% of all ovarian serous tumors are of borderline type and 50% occur before the age of 40 years
B:-Up to 40% of serous borderline tumors are associated with spread beyond the ovary
C:-Up to 10% of women with ovarian serous borderline tumors and extraovarian implants may have invasive implants
D:-Borderline serous tumors may harbor foci of stromal microinvasion and if so, should be managed as aggressive serous carcinomas
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question87:-In Kyoto (Querlou and Morrow) classification, Nerve sparing Radical Hysterectomy is
A:-Type B
B:-Type C1
C:-Type C2
D:-Type D2
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question88:-All are TRUE about Germ cell tumours EXCEPT
A:-In patients with stage IA dysgerminoma, unilateral oophorectomy alone results in a 5-year disease-free survival rate of greater than 95%
B:-Patients with stage IA, grade 1 immature teratoma need 4 cycles of BEP adjuvant therapy after surgery
C:-All patients with Endodermal Stromal Tumours (EST) should be treated with chemotherapy shortly after recovering from surgery ovarian dysfunction of failure
D:-Transient ovarian failure is common with platinum-based chemotherapy for germ cell tumours and majority will have successful childbearing in the future
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question89:-All the following statements regarding Granulosa cell tumours of the ovary are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-Endometrial cancer occurs in association with granulosa cell tumors in at least 5% of cases
B:-25-50% of Granulosa cell tumours are associated with endometrial hyperplasia
C:-Granulosa cell tumors may also produce androgens and cause virilization
D:-Juvenile granulosa cell tumors of the ovary are rare and behaves more aggressively than the adult type
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question90:-All the following statements about intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-bile acids are cleared incompletely and accumulate in plasma but the cause is unclear
B:-pruritus shows predilection for the soles and may precede laboratory findings by several weeks
C:-total plasma concentrations of bilirubin exceed 8 mg/dL and serum transaminases exceed 500 in 30% patients
D:-ursodeoxycholic acid relieves pruritus and improves fetal outcome better than steroids and cholestyramine
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question91:-All the statements about sickle cell anaemia in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-Sickle-cell trait does not appear to be associated with increased perinatal mortality, low birthweight or pregnancy-induced hypertension
B:-In Sickle cell disease there is no categorical contraindication to vaginal delivery, and caesarean delivery is reserved for obstetrical indications
C:-Routine prophylactic blood transfusions during labour is recommended to reduce painful crises in Sickle cell anaemia
D:-Antenatal folic acid supplementation with 4 mg daily throughout pregnancy is needed to support rapid red blood cell turnover
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question92:-All the statements about thrombocytopenia in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-A platelet count of < 80,000/L should trigger an evaluation for etiologies other than gestational thrombocytopenia
B:-Hypertensive disorders account for 21% of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy
C:-In ITP complicating pregnancy, therapy with steroids is considered if the platelet count is below 30,000 to 50,000/L
D:-Maternal platelet counts have strong correlation with fetal platelet counts and caesarean delivery is recommended if platelet count is < 50,000 on fetal blood sampling
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question93:-All the following statements regarding diabetes in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-Periconceptional HbA1C should be kept under 6.5% in pregestational diabetic women
B:-MSAFP levels may be lower in diabetic pregnancies and the incidence of congenital cardiac anomalies is five fold in mothers with diabetes
C:-Ultra short acting insulin analogues starts acting in 30 minutes, peaks in 2 hrs minutes and is good for preprandial glycemic control in pregnancy
D:-Insulin therapy is typically added if fasting levels persistently exceed 95 mg/dL after medical nutrition therapy
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question94:-All the statements about thyroid in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-Women with TPO antibodies are at increased risk for progression of thyroid disease and postpartum thyroiditis
B:-It is recommended that women avoid pregnancy for 1 month after radioablative therapy with iodine 131
C:-Pregnancy is associated with an increased thyroxine requirement in approximately a third of supplemented women
D:-Prophylthiouracil (PTU) is preferred in pregnancy because it partially inhibits the conversion of T4 to T3 and crosses the placenta less readily than methimazole
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question95:-All the statements about SLE in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-Fetal cell micro chimerism leads to the predilection for autoimmune disorders like SLE among women
B:-In the presence of anti-Ro and Anti-La antibodies, the incidence of fetal myocarditis and heart block is as high as 20%
C:-During pregnancy, lupus improves in a third of women, remains unchanged in a third and worsens in the remaining third
D:-Hydroxychloroquine is not associated with congenital malformations and can be continued in pregnancy
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question96:-All are TRUE about antiphospholipid antibody syndrome EXCEPT
A:-Asherson syndrome is a rapidly progressive thromboembolic disorder due to a cytokine storm seen in antiphospolipid antibody syndrome
B:-Approximately 60 percent of patients with APS have a positive lupus anticoagulant LAC assay alone
C:-Heparin binds to beta 2 glycoprotein I and prevents binding of anticardiolipin andanti-beta 2 glycoprotein I antibodies to the syncytiotrophoblasts
D:-Treatment using aspirin, anticoagulation and close monitoring has increased live birth rates to more than 70 percent in women with APS
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question97:-All are TRUE about management of obstetric haemorrhage EXCEPT
A:-The most important mechanism of action with internal iliac artery ligation is an 85-percent reduction in pulse pressure in those arteries distal to the ligation
B:-ROTEM or TEG cannot diagnose coagulopathies stemming from platelet dysfunction or anti platelet drugs
C:-Each single-donor apheresis six-unit bag raises the platelet count by approximately 5000/L
D:-Dilutional coagulopathy that is clinically indistinguishable from DIC is the most frequent coagulation defect found with blood loss and multiple transfusions
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question98:-All are TRUE about USS features of Placenta Accreta Spectrum (PAS) EXCEPT
A:-loss of the normal hypoechoicretroplacentalzone between the placenta and uterus
B:-placental vascular lacunae or lakes
C:-distance between the uterine serosa-bladder wall interface and the retroplacental vessels measures < 10 mm
D:-placental bulging into the posterior bladder wall
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question99:-USS has a sensitivity of ____________ in suspected abruptio placenta.
A:-24%
B:-54%
C:-81%
D:-93%
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question100:-All are TRUE about COVID-19 in pregnancy EXCEPT
A:-It is associated with an almost three times greater risk of preterm birth (17%)
B:-Majority of pregnant women (74%) may be asymptomatic
C:-ICU admissions are not more common in pregnant women compared to nonpregnant women of the same age
D:-Risk factors associated with hospital admissions include older age, obesity, diabetes and hypertension
Correct Answer:- Option-C
0 comments
Post a Comment