Kerala PSC Assistant Professor in Obstetrics and Gynaecology previous question paper 2021
Question Paper Code: 7/2021/OL
Category Code: 010/2020
Exam: Assistant Professor in Obstetrics and Gynaecology
Date of Test 15-03-2021
Department Medical Education Services
PART 2
Questions (01 to 25) : Click here
Quesitons (25 to 50): Click here
Question51:-All are TRUE about atypical leiomyomas EXCEPT
A:-Mitotically active leiomyoma is defined by the presence of 5 to 10 mitoses/10 high-power fields and may be found in pregnancy and OCP users
B:-Cellular leiomyomas exhibiting chromosome 1p deletions, may be clinically more aggressive
C:-STUMP shows atypical histologic features that range between leiomyoma and LMS but the mitotic count is less than 10/10 hpf
D:-STUMP mostly those that are p53 and p16 positive, have been found to exhibit malignant potential to develop a low-grade LMS
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question52:-Contraindications to Uterine Artery Embolisation (UAE) include all EXCEPT
A:-desirous of future fertility
B:-impaired renal dysfunction
C:-diminished immune status
D:-willingness for hysterectomy
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question53:-The pharmacologic treatments for vulvodynia can include topical lidocaine 5% with any of the following EXCEPT
A:-oral gabapentine and steroids
B:-botulinum toxin injections
C:-combined oestrogen and progesterone pills
D:-menopausal hormone therapy
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question54:-Find the INCORRECT statement about Chronic Pelvic Pain (CPP)
A:-There appears to be no relationship between the incidence and severity of pain or the stage of the endometriotic lesions
B:-The specific location and density of pelvic adhesions correlates consistently with the presence of pain symptoms
C:-Endometriosis can be demonstrated in 15% to 40% of patients undergoing laparoscopy for CPP
D:-The accuracy of ultrasound in detecting ovarian remnant syndrome can be improved by treating the patient with a 5- to 10-day course of clomiphene citrate
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question55:-Find the FALSE statement regarding elagolix
A:-used to suppress the estrogen production to a level that is adequate for symptom relief but minimizes hypoestrogenic effects
B:-cannot produce a dose-dependent suppression of pituitary function and ovarian hormones like GnRH agonists
C:-improves dysmenorrhea and nonmenstrual pelvic pain during a 6-month period in women with endometriosis-associated pain
D:-orally active GnRH antagonist with no flare effect
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question56:-The FALSE statement regarding trichomonial vaginitis is
A:-Increased risk of PPROM and PTL in pregnant women and higher post hysterectomy cuff infection
B:-Less than 10% of men contract the disease after a single exposure to an infected woman
C:-T. vaginalis infection is associated with a two to three fold increased risk for HIV acquisition
D:-Clue cells and Whiff test may be positive in TV
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question57:-Find the FALSE statement regarding cervicitis
A:-The microbial etiology of endocervicitis is unknown in about 50% of cases in which neither gonococci nor chlamydia is detected
B:-Mycoplasma genitaliem, can be detected in 10% to 30% of women with clinical cervicitis
C:-Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) for gonorrhea and chlamydia, is not mandatory in all cases
D:-Cervicitis is commonly associated with BV, which if not treated concurrently, leads to significant persistence
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question58:-All the statements regarding PID are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-About 75% of women with tubo-ovarian abscess do not respond to antimicrobial therapy alone and need drainage
B:-No definite symptoms are defined to diagnose PID
C:-Evaluation of both vaginal and endocervical secretions is a crucial part of the workup of a patient with PID
D:-Additional criteria to increase the specificity of the diagnosis include endometrial biopsy, CRP and positive test for gonorrhea or chlamydia and laparoscopy
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question59:-Regarding genital ulcers find the TRUE statement
A:-The ulcer of syphilis has irregular margins and is deep with undermined edges
B:-The chancroid ulcer has a smooth, indurated border and a smooth base
C:-The genital herpes ulcer is often multiple, sub-epidermal and inflamed
D:-If inguinal buboes with no ulcer is present, the most likely diagnosis is LGV
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question60:-Regarding testing in genital ulcers which of the following statements is FALSE
A:-(VDRL) test and a confirmatory treponemal test - fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA ABS) or microhemagglutinin-T. pallidum should be used to diagnose syphilis presumptively in all cases
B:-HSV culture sensitivity approaches 100% in the vesicle stage but PCR assays for HSV DNA are more sensitive in the ulcerative stage
C:-Optimally, the evaluation of a patient with a genital ulcer should include culture for Haemophilusducreyi
D:-The diagnosis remains unconfirmed in more than half of patients (60%) with genital ulcers
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question61:-Find the FALSE statement regarding HPV induced CIN.
A:-HPV-16 infection is a very specific finding and can be found in only 2% of women with normal cervical cytology
B:-HPV-18 is more specific than HPV-16 for invasive tumors
C:-Metaplasia found at the squamocolumnar junction, begins in the subcolumnar reserve cells
D:-As the CIN lesions become more severe, the HPV copy numbers decrease, and the capsid antigen disappears
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question62:-The sensitivity of cervical cytology testing by Pap Smear for the detection of CIN 2 or 3 ranges from
A:-60 to 95%
B:-47% to 62%
C:-20-30%
D:-10-15%
Correct Answer:- Option-B
A:-Mitotically active leiomyoma is defined by the presence of 5 to 10 mitoses/10 high-power fields and may be found in pregnancy and OCP users
B:-Cellular leiomyomas exhibiting chromosome 1p deletions, may be clinically more aggressive
C:-STUMP shows atypical histologic features that range between leiomyoma and LMS but the mitotic count is less than 10/10 hpf
D:-STUMP mostly those that are p53 and p16 positive, have been found to exhibit malignant potential to develop a low-grade LMS
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question52:-Contraindications to Uterine Artery Embolisation (UAE) include all EXCEPT
A:-desirous of future fertility
B:-impaired renal dysfunction
C:-diminished immune status
D:-willingness for hysterectomy
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question53:-The pharmacologic treatments for vulvodynia can include topical lidocaine 5% with any of the following EXCEPT
A:-oral gabapentine and steroids
B:-botulinum toxin injections
C:-combined oestrogen and progesterone pills
D:-menopausal hormone therapy
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question54:-Find the INCORRECT statement about Chronic Pelvic Pain (CPP)
A:-There appears to be no relationship between the incidence and severity of pain or the stage of the endometriotic lesions
B:-The specific location and density of pelvic adhesions correlates consistently with the presence of pain symptoms
C:-Endometriosis can be demonstrated in 15% to 40% of patients undergoing laparoscopy for CPP
D:-The accuracy of ultrasound in detecting ovarian remnant syndrome can be improved by treating the patient with a 5- to 10-day course of clomiphene citrate
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question55:-Find the FALSE statement regarding elagolix
A:-used to suppress the estrogen production to a level that is adequate for symptom relief but minimizes hypoestrogenic effects
B:-cannot produce a dose-dependent suppression of pituitary function and ovarian hormones like GnRH agonists
C:-improves dysmenorrhea and nonmenstrual pelvic pain during a 6-month period in women with endometriosis-associated pain
D:-orally active GnRH antagonist with no flare effect
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question56:-The FALSE statement regarding trichomonial vaginitis is
A:-Increased risk of PPROM and PTL in pregnant women and higher post hysterectomy cuff infection
B:-Less than 10% of men contract the disease after a single exposure to an infected woman
C:-T. vaginalis infection is associated with a two to three fold increased risk for HIV acquisition
D:-Clue cells and Whiff test may be positive in TV
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question57:-Find the FALSE statement regarding cervicitis
A:-The microbial etiology of endocervicitis is unknown in about 50% of cases in which neither gonococci nor chlamydia is detected
B:-Mycoplasma genitaliem, can be detected in 10% to 30% of women with clinical cervicitis
C:-Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) for gonorrhea and chlamydia, is not mandatory in all cases
D:-Cervicitis is commonly associated with BV, which if not treated concurrently, leads to significant persistence
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question58:-All the statements regarding PID are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-About 75% of women with tubo-ovarian abscess do not respond to antimicrobial therapy alone and need drainage
B:-No definite symptoms are defined to diagnose PID
C:-Evaluation of both vaginal and endocervical secretions is a crucial part of the workup of a patient with PID
D:-Additional criteria to increase the specificity of the diagnosis include endometrial biopsy, CRP and positive test for gonorrhea or chlamydia and laparoscopy
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question59:-Regarding genital ulcers find the TRUE statement
A:-The ulcer of syphilis has irregular margins and is deep with undermined edges
B:-The chancroid ulcer has a smooth, indurated border and a smooth base
C:-The genital herpes ulcer is often multiple, sub-epidermal and inflamed
D:-If inguinal buboes with no ulcer is present, the most likely diagnosis is LGV
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question60:-Regarding testing in genital ulcers which of the following statements is FALSE
A:-(VDRL) test and a confirmatory treponemal test - fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA ABS) or microhemagglutinin-T. pallidum should be used to diagnose syphilis presumptively in all cases
B:-HSV culture sensitivity approaches 100% in the vesicle stage but PCR assays for HSV DNA are more sensitive in the ulcerative stage
C:-Optimally, the evaluation of a patient with a genital ulcer should include culture for Haemophilusducreyi
D:-The diagnosis remains unconfirmed in more than half of patients (60%) with genital ulcers
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question61:-Find the FALSE statement regarding HPV induced CIN.
A:-HPV-16 infection is a very specific finding and can be found in only 2% of women with normal cervical cytology
B:-HPV-18 is more specific than HPV-16 for invasive tumors
C:-Metaplasia found at the squamocolumnar junction, begins in the subcolumnar reserve cells
D:-As the CIN lesions become more severe, the HPV copy numbers decrease, and the capsid antigen disappears
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question62:-The sensitivity of cervical cytology testing by Pap Smear for the detection of CIN 2 or 3 ranges from
A:-60 to 95%
B:-47% to 62%
C:-20-30%
D:-10-15%
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question63:-Cervical conisation is indicated in all EXCEPT
A:-ECC histologic findings are positive for CIN 2 or CIN 3
B:-Lack of correlation between cytology, biopsy and colposcopy
C:-Type I transformation zone
D:-Diagnosis of AGC-AIS
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question64:-The following drugs are approved for treatment of Genitourinary Syndrome of Menopause (GSM) EXCEPT
A:-Ospemifene
B:-17 beta oestradiol
C:-Paroxetine
D:-DHEA
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question65:-Following are the duties of a Registered Medical Practitioner under POCSO Act of India EXCEPT
A:-The registered medical practitioner shall submit the report on the condition of the child within 48 hrs to the SJPU or local police
B:-Provide prophylaxis for identified STD including prophylaxis for HIV and emergency contraception
C:-Shall request for legal or magisterial requisition or other documentation prior to rendering such care
D:-Options 1) and 3)
Correct Answer:- Option-D
A:-ECC histologic findings are positive for CIN 2 or CIN 3
B:-Lack of correlation between cytology, biopsy and colposcopy
C:-Type I transformation zone
D:-Diagnosis of AGC-AIS
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question64:-The following drugs are approved for treatment of Genitourinary Syndrome of Menopause (GSM) EXCEPT
A:-Ospemifene
B:-17 beta oestradiol
C:-Paroxetine
D:-DHEA
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question65:-Following are the duties of a Registered Medical Practitioner under POCSO Act of India EXCEPT
A:-The registered medical practitioner shall submit the report on the condition of the child within 48 hrs to the SJPU or local police
B:-Provide prophylaxis for identified STD including prophylaxis for HIV and emergency contraception
C:-Shall request for legal or magisterial requisition or other documentation prior to rendering such care
D:-Options 1) and 3)
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question66:-All are TRUE statements regarding female sterilisation in India EXCEPT
A:-Laparoscopic tubal ligation can be done concurrently with second-trimester abortion and in the post-partum period only by an expert operator
B:-The consent of the spouse is not required for sterilization
C:-Clients should be married with female client below the age of 49 years and above the age of 22 years
D:-The couple need have minimum one child whose age is above one year unless the sterilization is medically indicated
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question67:-All the following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-BMI greater than 35 or weight greater than 100 kg, should receive 2 g of cefazolin as preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis
B:-In as many as 50% of postoperative patients, Febrile morbidity in first 48 hours is noninfectious and does not need antibiotics
C:-Even a single dose of perioperative prophylactic antibiotic decreases the incidence of postoperative urinary tract infection from 40% to as low as 4%
D:-Incidence of wound infections could be decreased by hexachlorophene showers before surgery and shaving of the woundsite just prior to incision
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question68:-All the following are TRUE about Enhanced Recovery-ERAS Protocol EXCEPT
A:-Preoperative carbohydrate loading
B:-The use of liberal antiemetics including preoperative steroids
C:-Avoiding routine nasogastric tube and drains
D:-Adequate pain relief with opiods
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question69:-Find the CORRECT statement regarding laparoscopy.
A:-To avoid injury to the deep inferior epigastric vessels, the lateral trocar should be placed 3 to 4 cm medial to the medial umbilical ligament
B:-Transillumination of the abdominal wall from within permits the identification of the deep inferior epigastric vessels in most thin women
C:-The amount of gas transmitted into the peritoneal cavity should depend on the measured intraperitoneal pressure, not the volume of gas inflated
D:-Hasson's open entry method is better than the closed method in preventing organ injury
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question70:-Find the FALSE statement.
A:-Data are insufficient regarding fasting times for clear liquids and the risk of pulmonary aspiration during labor
B:-Modest amounts of clear liquids can be allowed in uncomplicated laboring women
C:-Obvious solid foods are best avoided
D:-A fasting period of 6 to 8 hours for solid food is recommended for uncomplicated parturients prior to undergoing Category I, II and III Caesarean sections
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question71:-Findings consistent with an Acute Peripartum or intrapartum event leading to Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy are the following EXCEPT
A:-Apgar score < 5 at 5 and 10 minutes
B:-Umbilical arterial pH < 7.0 and/or base deficit > 12 mmo I/L
C:-Sentinel hypoxic or ischemic event occurring immediately before or during delivery
D:-Spastic diplegia and ataxia type cerebral palsy
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question72:-Absolute contraindications to External Cephalic Version in Breech include all EXCEPT
A:-Oligohydramnios
B:-Antepartum hemorrhage
C:-Any contraindication to labour
D:-Multiple gestation
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question73:-Which of the following is used to deliver an arrested after coming head in assisted breech delivery of chin to pubis rotated baby ?
A:-Scanzoni maneuver
B:-Pajot's maneuver
C:-Prague maneuver
D:-Kristellar maneuver
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question74:-Which is NOT a contraindication to vacuum extraction ?
A:-Brow presentation
B:-Fetal bleeding disorder or demineralization disorder
C:-Previous fetal scalp sampling
D:-Less than 34 weeks of gestation
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question75:-All the following are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-Third-and fourth-degree lacerations at delivery are associated with an increased risk of fecal incontinence (OR 2-3)
B:-Patients with occult anal sphincter tears are 8 times more likely to have fecal incontinence
C:-There is sufficient evidence to support primary elective cesarean delivery for the purpose of preserving fecal continence
D:-Both forceps and vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery significantly increase this risk, with vacuum being less traumatic than forceps
Correct Answer:- Option-C
A:-Laparoscopic tubal ligation can be done concurrently with second-trimester abortion and in the post-partum period only by an expert operator
B:-The consent of the spouse is not required for sterilization
C:-Clients should be married with female client below the age of 49 years and above the age of 22 years
D:-The couple need have minimum one child whose age is above one year unless the sterilization is medically indicated
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question67:-All the following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-BMI greater than 35 or weight greater than 100 kg, should receive 2 g of cefazolin as preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis
B:-In as many as 50% of postoperative patients, Febrile morbidity in first 48 hours is noninfectious and does not need antibiotics
C:-Even a single dose of perioperative prophylactic antibiotic decreases the incidence of postoperative urinary tract infection from 40% to as low as 4%
D:-Incidence of wound infections could be decreased by hexachlorophene showers before surgery and shaving of the woundsite just prior to incision
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question68:-All the following are TRUE about Enhanced Recovery-ERAS Protocol EXCEPT
A:-Preoperative carbohydrate loading
B:-The use of liberal antiemetics including preoperative steroids
C:-Avoiding routine nasogastric tube and drains
D:-Adequate pain relief with opiods
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question69:-Find the CORRECT statement regarding laparoscopy.
A:-To avoid injury to the deep inferior epigastric vessels, the lateral trocar should be placed 3 to 4 cm medial to the medial umbilical ligament
B:-Transillumination of the abdominal wall from within permits the identification of the deep inferior epigastric vessels in most thin women
C:-The amount of gas transmitted into the peritoneal cavity should depend on the measured intraperitoneal pressure, not the volume of gas inflated
D:-Hasson's open entry method is better than the closed method in preventing organ injury
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question70:-Find the FALSE statement.
A:-Data are insufficient regarding fasting times for clear liquids and the risk of pulmonary aspiration during labor
B:-Modest amounts of clear liquids can be allowed in uncomplicated laboring women
C:-Obvious solid foods are best avoided
D:-A fasting period of 6 to 8 hours for solid food is recommended for uncomplicated parturients prior to undergoing Category I, II and III Caesarean sections
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question71:-Findings consistent with an Acute Peripartum or intrapartum event leading to Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy are the following EXCEPT
A:-Apgar score < 5 at 5 and 10 minutes
B:-Umbilical arterial pH < 7.0 and/or base deficit > 12 mmo I/L
C:-Sentinel hypoxic or ischemic event occurring immediately before or during delivery
D:-Spastic diplegia and ataxia type cerebral palsy
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question72:-Absolute contraindications to External Cephalic Version in Breech include all EXCEPT
A:-Oligohydramnios
B:-Antepartum hemorrhage
C:-Any contraindication to labour
D:-Multiple gestation
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question73:-Which of the following is used to deliver an arrested after coming head in assisted breech delivery of chin to pubis rotated baby ?
A:-Scanzoni maneuver
B:-Pajot's maneuver
C:-Prague maneuver
D:-Kristellar maneuver
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question74:-Which is NOT a contraindication to vacuum extraction ?
A:-Brow presentation
B:-Fetal bleeding disorder or demineralization disorder
C:-Previous fetal scalp sampling
D:-Less than 34 weeks of gestation
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question75:-All the following are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-Third-and fourth-degree lacerations at delivery are associated with an increased risk of fecal incontinence (OR 2-3)
B:-Patients with occult anal sphincter tears are 8 times more likely to have fecal incontinence
C:-There is sufficient evidence to support primary elective cesarean delivery for the purpose of preserving fecal continence
D:-Both forceps and vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery significantly increase this risk, with vacuum being less traumatic than forceps
Correct Answer:- Option-C
<<<<Previous ||||||| Next >>>>
0 comments
Post a Comment