1. In a case
of Acute Lymphoblastic
Leukemia, the lymphoblasts demonstrated strong localized positivity with acid phosphatase.
The cells were
positive for CD2
and CD7 and
negative for CD19,
CD24, and CD20. These blasts are most likely:
(A) Lymphoid
stem cells
(B) T lymphoblasts
(C) B lymphoblasts
(D) Undifferentiated
blasts
2. A patient with anemia of chronic disease is most
likely to have which set of
laboratory test results?
(A) MCV
decreased, serum iron
decreased, serum ferritin
decreased, TIBC and % saturation decreased
(B) MCV normal, serum
iron increased, serum
ferritin decreased, TIBC
and % saturation decreased
(C) MCV normal, serum
iron decreased, serum
ferritin increased, TIBC
and % saturation decreased
(D) MCV
decreased, serum iron
increased, serum ferritin
increased, TIBC and % saturation increased
3. An increase in
the reticulocyte count
is accompanied by :
(A) Suppressed maturation
of normoblasts in
the bone marrow
(B) A shift to the
left in the oxygen
dissociation curve
(C) Polychromasia
on the Romanovsky
stained blood smear
(D) An increase in
direct serum bilirubin
4. A 8-year-old boy presents with intramuscular hematomas and recurrent
hemarthroses. Laboratory tests reveal
normal platelet count
bleeding time, and
PT, but the
PTT is prolonged. This
condition most likely results
from an abnormality
involving :
(A) Chromosome 8
(B) Chromosome 14
(C) Chromosome 21
(D) X Chromosome
5. A patient is suspected of having hemolytic anemia. Numerous spherocytes are present in the
blood smear, and
the reticulocyte count
is 18%. What
test should be
done to determine whether this
is an autoimmune process ?
(A) Direct Antiglobulin Test
(DAT)
(B) Osmotic
Fragility Test
(C) Urinalysis
(D) Serum Bilirubin
6. A joint aspiration is performed on a 60 year old lady
with painful swollen elbow, and a sample
is sent to
the laboratory. A
cytocentrifuged slide is
examined with polarized light shows
needlelike intracellular and
extracellular crystals which
exhibit negative birefringence compensator. These
crystals would be
best identified as
which of the following
?
(A) Calcium pyrophosphate
(B) Cholesterol
(C) Monosodium urate
(D) Steroids
7. A
thoracentesis is performed
on a large
pleural effusion yielded
1.2 L of
thick, yellow
fluid.
Laboratory studies show
a total protein
of 4.5 g/dL
(serum=6 g/dL) lactate
dehydrogenase 40
U/L (serum =
50 u/L) and
total leukocyte count
of 20,000/microlitre
with 90% segmented neutrophils. Which statement fits most well for
this fluid ?
(A) This is an
exudate
(B) This is a
transudate
(C) This is a chylous
fluid
(D) This is
unlikely to be of an
infectious etiology
8. Hematuria with dysmorphic RBCs is a hallmark of :
(A) Renal
Tuberculosis
(B) Acute
Glomerulonephritis
(C) Chronic
Renal Failure
(D) Renal Calculi
9. Microalbuminuria
is defined as level of
albumin in urine at range of :
(A) 100-150 mg/day
(B) 150-200 mg/day
(C) 30-300 mg/day
(D) 300-600 mg/day
10. A
51-year-old man is
admitted following an
episode of hematemesis
in which he remembers
vomiting about a liter of dark
red bloody vomitus into the.
He is found
to have orthostatic hypotension. His
Hgb is 6.2
g/dL, Hct 18.8%, MCV
74 fL, platelet count 90,000/uL, and WBC count
10,100/uL. His prothrombin time is 12.1
seconds and partial thromboplastin time
26.2 seconds. Which
of the following
blood products is most appropriate for this man ?
(A) Whole blood
(B) Cryoprecipitate
(C) Fresh frozen plasma
(D) Packed RBC’s
11. A recipient developed
a sudden drop
in blood pressure
following transfusion, though he remained afebrile. Which
of the following conditions is most
likely to be found ?
(A) Septicemia
(B) Graft-versus-host
disease
(C) Penicillin
allergy
(D) IgA deficiency
12. One unit of
FRESH FROZEN PLASMA
prepared from whole
blood contains __________ ml of
plasma.
(A) 100-150
(B) 250-400
(C) 200-250
(D) 50-150
13. Coombs
control cell consists
of :
(A) Type O
positive cells coated with
Anti D
(B) Type O negative
cells coated with Anti D
(C) Type A positive
cells coated with Anti D
(D) Type A negative
cells coated with Anti D
14. Nucleic acid Amplification Test for HIV
was instituted in
donor testing protocols to :
(A) Identify donors
with late stage HIV who
lack antibodies
(B) Confirm the presence
of anti HIV in asymptomatic HIV INFECTED DONORS
(C) Reduce
window period to
detect virus earlier
than other available
tests
(D) Detect
antibodies to specific
viral proteins including
p24
15. Gauge of needle
ideal for blood
transfusion generally is :
(A) 21 G
(B) 25 G
(C) 16 G
(D) 10 G
16. Which of the
following is an example
of Iron Hematoxylin ?
(A) Mayers
Hematoxylin
(B) Harris’s
Hematoxylin
(C) Weigerts
Hematoxylin
(D) Gills Hematoxylin
17. Which of the
following microtome is better
for cutting large
specimens for museum ?
(A) Rotary microtome
(B) Rocking microtome
(C) Sledge microtome
(D) Sliding microtome
18. Which of the
following is a
routinely used clearing agent
in histopathology ?
(A) Chloroform
(B) Xylene
(C) Benzene
(D) Cedarwood oil
19. Which of the
following is not a slide adhesive
?
(A) DPX
(B) Mayer’s egg
albumin
(C) Chrome alum-gelatin
(D) APES
20. Which of the following is not an aqueous mounting media
?
(A) Glycerine jelly
(B) Apathy’s media
(C) Fructose syrup
(D) Canada balsam
21. Which among the following is the best stain for
demonstration of Barr Body?
(A) Papanicolaou stain
(B) Orcein stain
(C) Hematoxylin & Eosin
stain
(D) Shorr stain
22. Which of the
following EA (Eosin
Azure) is preferred
for non-gynaecological smears
?
(A) EA 50
(B) EA 36
(C) EA 65
(D) EA 25
23. Which of the
following fixative is not useful
in a Millipore Filter
(membrane filter) ?
(A) 95% Ethyl alcohol
(B) 80%
Isopropyl alcohol
(C) 100% Methanol
(D) 80% Propanol
24. Which among the following is the most suitable fixative
for gastric washings ?
(A) 50% Ethanol
(B) 70% Ethanol
(C) 95% Ethanol
(D) None of the above
25. Carnoy’s
fixative do not
contain __________.
(A) 95% Ethanol
(B) Glacial
acetic acid
(C) Chloroform
(D) Formaldehyde
Answers:
1 B 2 C 3 C 4 D 5 A 6 C 7 A 8 B 9 C
10 D 11 D 12 C 13 A 14 C 15 C 16 C 17 C 18 B
19 A 20 D 21 B 22 C 23 C 24 C 25 D
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